TECH120 Domain 70 Anesthesia

44 cards | Total Attempts: 242 | Created by VINmedia | Last updated: Aug 21, 2017 | Total Attempts: 242

A Property Of Tranquilizers And Sedatives Is A Drug That(A) Provides Analgesia.(B) Provides Unconsciousness.(C) Puts The Animal In A Relaxed State.(D) Keeps The Animal From Responding To Pain.

Cards In This Set

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A property of tranquilizers and sedatives is a drug that (A) provides analgesia. (B) provides unconsciousness. (C) puts the animal in a relaxed state. (D) keeps the animal from responding to pain.	Correct Response: C Explanation: Tranquilizers and sedatives will help calm and relax a patient. They can be combined with an opioid in the premedication so that lower doses can be utilized. References: Thomas, J. A., Lerche, P. (2011). Anesthesia and Analgesia for Veterinary Technicians. (4th ed). Elsevier Health, pg 2.
If an endotracheal tube is inserted too far down the trachea it can result in (A) bronchial intubation. (B) excessive dead space. (C) increased IPPV. (D) pneumothorax.	Correct Response: A Explanation: The endotracheal tube tip should not extend past the patients' thoracic inlet (point of the shoulder) nor should the connector extend cranial to the incisor teeth once placed. If the endotracheal tube is inserted too far it can result in bronchial intubation which may result in only one side of the lungs being properly ventilated. An endotracheal tube that extends cranial to the incisors will contribute to excessive dead space. References: Thomas, J. A., Lerche, P. (2011). Anesthesia and Analgesia for Veterinary Technicians. (4th ed). Elsevier Health, pg 246.
Absorbents such as soda lime are used in an anesthesia machine to extract (A) nitrous oxide. (B) nitrogen. (C) carbon dioxide. (D) the anesthetic.	Correct Response: C Explanation: Soda lime and Carbolyme are examples of absorbents used to extract CO2 from the exhaled gases before they are returned (re-breathed) by the patient. References: Tranquilli, W. J., Thurmon, J. C., Grimm, K. A. (2007). Lumb and Jones' Veterinary Anesthesia and Analgesia (4th ed). Wiley and Sons, page 250; Plumb, D. C. (2011). Veterinary Drug Handbook (7th ed). Iowa State Press, page 479.
The drug class commonly given in conjunction with ketamine at induction for dogs and cats is (A) Alpha 2 agonist. (B) Benzodiazepines. (C) Phenothiazines. (D) Anticholinergics.	Correct Response: B Explanation: Benzodiazepines include the drugs diazepam, midazolam, zolazepam, and lorazepam which provide muscle relaxation to counteract the muscle rigidity associated with the ketamine.
The drug combination that will produce neuroleptanalgesia is (A) morphine and butorphanol. (B) oxymorphone and acepromazine. (C) hydromorphone and naloxone. (D) diazepam and acepromazine.	Correct Response: B Explanation: The combination of an opioid and a tranquilizing/sedative agent is described as neuroleptanalgesia. Together these drugs produce a state of profound sedation and analgesia. Morphine and butorphanol are both opioids. Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of hydromorphone. Diazepam and acepromazine are both considered tranquilizers.
The anesthetic stage known as the “excitement” stage is (A) Stage I (B) Stage II (C) Stage III (D) Stage IV	Correct Response: B Explanation: Stage II (in anesthesia Plane 3) is considered the excitement stage. Plane 3, Stage I begins with the loss of consciousness, however the animal is NOT considered anesthetized! All reflexes are still present and the animal may attempt to struggle, vocalize, chew and swallow. Plane 3, Stage II is commonly seen during mask or chamber inductions with inhalants. Animals that are given proper premedication and induced with an injectable anesthetic will often proceed directly to Stage III. It is important to note the animal still goes through Stage II, it just will not be clinically apparent.
The surgeon is about to make the first incision on the lateral aspect of the stifle for a TPLO procedure. What stage of anesthesia is considered appropriate for surgical stimulus to occur? (A) Stage III plane 1 (B) Stage III plane 2 (C) Stage III plane 3 (D) Stage III plane 4	Correct Response: B Explanation: Stage III is the only stage that is further broken down into 4 planes. Plane 1 is considered 'light anesthesia' where endotracheal intubation can be achieved. Plane 2 is 'medium anesthesia' and is considered the optimal plane for surgical stimulus to occur for most minor surgeries. Plane 3 is 'deep anesthesia' where moderate to severe cardiovascular and pulmonary depression will be seen and all reflexes are absent. Plane 4 is 'dangerously deep anesthesia' where cardiac and respiratory arrest are likely to occur if immediate intervention does not happen. References: VSPN Notebook® (2012). Stages and Planes of Anesthesia: http:// beta.vin.com/Members/CMS/document/default.aspx?id=2990248&pid=49&catid=183&said=2; Anesthesia Monitoring - Overview: http:// beta.vin.com/Members/CMS/document/default.aspx?id=2991215&pid=49&catid=183&said=2
Select the incorrect statement regarding thiopental: A. Thiopental can cause bigeminy at induction. B. Thiopental is a potent respiratory depressant. C. Thiopental is the agent of choice to use in sighthounds. D. Thiopental causes tissue sloughing if given perivascular.	Correct Response: C Explanation: Thiopental is NOT recommended for use in sight hound breeds such as greyhounds, whippets, salukis, etc. The recovery time is greatly prolonged in these breeds especially (can also be seen in other dogs that exhibit similar characteristics) because as thiopental is redistributed into muscle and fat, the effects of the anesthesia are reduced and the dog will awaken. Sight hounds (or any skinny dog) lacks the necessary body fat reserves to allow this to happen and the thiopental stays in circulation longer as it awaits hepatic metabolism. Thiopental is also not available in the USA, but is in Canada and other countries.
MAC is a measure of the A. potency of an inhalant anesthetic. B. vapor pressure of an inhalant anesthetic. C. solubility of an inhalant anesthetic. D. clarity of an inhalant anesthetic.	Correct Response: A Explanation: MAC stands for Minimum Alveolar Concentration defined as the concentration of inhalant that prevents gross purposeful movement in 50% of the patients exposed to a noxious stimulus. MAC measures the potency of an inhalant. The lower the MAC the more potent an inhalant. Surgical MAC is defined as 1.5xMAC.
A good anesthetic plane for surgical stimulus in a dog would be present when the eyeball is in the A. central position. B. medial ventral position. C. lateral ventral position. D. medial dorsal position.	Correct Response: B Explanation: The eye begins in the central position. As the patient moves into a surgical plane the eye rotates medial ventral (may also be called rostroventral). As the patient moves to a deeper plane of anesthesia the eye rotates back to the central position again. NOTE: ketamine maintains the eye in the central position during surgical anesthesia (Stage III, Plane 2).
The partition coefficient of an anesthetic gas is used to describe its (A) potency. (B) solubility. (C) vapor pressure. (D) viscosity.	Correct Response: B Explanation: The partition coefficient (PC) of an anesthetic gas is a ratio describing its solubility in a specific solvent (blood or tissue). The solubility of an agent helps determine the speed at which induction and recovery occur. Solubility of the anesthetic agent also determines how fast anesthetic depth can be changed. The lower the PC of an inhalant the faster the induction and recovery. References: Tranquilli, W. J., Thurmon, J. C., Grimm, K. A. (2007). Lumb and Jones' Veterinary Anesthesia and Analgesia (4th ed). Wiley and Sons, pg 364.
Gently tapping the lateral or medial canthus of the eye elicits (A) the palpebral reflex. (B) the corneal reflex. (C) nystagmus. (D) lacrimation.	Correct Response: A Explanation: When checking the palpebral reflex you are looking for a partial or complete closure of the eyelids (blink). The palpebral reflex is normally weak or absent at a plane of anesthesia satisfactory for surgical stimulus.
A deep plane of anesthesia is indicated by (A) flaccid jaw tone. (B) pupil constriction. (C) presence of palpebral reflex. (D) presence of laryngeal reflex.	Correct Response: A Explanation: Muscle tone is a good indicator of anesthetic depth. Skeletal muscle becomes more relaxed as depth increases. Muscle tone is present in light to medium planes of anesthesia and becomes more flaccid as depth increases. Muscle tone is assessed by testing jaw tone or anal tone. It is important to note that muscle tone is NOT considered a reflex.
Of the methods listed, the least reliable to monitor the heart rate is (A) palpation of peripheral artery. (B) auscultation of chest wall. (C) esophageal stethoscope. (D) ECG.	Correct Response: D Explanation: Electrocardiography (ECG) does not give you any information about the mechanical function of the heart. An ECG wave may be seen on the monitor even if the heart is no longer beating. ECG is an evaluation of the heart's electrical activity and gives information about cardiac arrhythmias and the myocardial environment (hypoxia, hyperkalemia, etc). It should NOT be used as the sole method for determining heart rate. When taking the heart rate you should always physically hear the beat AND feel a pulse. Answers A, B and C are all acceptable ways to monitor heart rate under anesthesia.
In small animals, hypotension is defined as having a MAP of less than A. 80mmHg. B. 70mmHg. C. 60mmHg. D. 50mmHg.	Correct Response: C Explanation: The mean arterial pressure (MAP) is what defines hypotension in all animals. MAP establishes an adequate perfusion pressure for the vital organs. In small animals a MAP of less than 60mmHg defines hypotension. In large animals a MAP of less than 70mmHg defines hypotension.